HKDSE M2 Question Review (20250615)
Question 1:
Given a curve y = x ln(e + 1/(x-1) ).
(a) By Googling the power series for ln(x+1), show that there exists a small value approximation for x that:
ln (1/x + 1) ~ 1/x
(b) Hence ompute the oblique asymptote for y.
Hint:
Take the required equation as y=ax + b
(b) Hence compute the oblique asymptote for y.
Answer:
y= x + 1/e
題解自己搵
Reference:
This is to find the oblique asymptote for polynomials, for the general method:
Question 2:
烏大龜係點樣自學higher math? 🐢
Solution:
The Feynman Technique
Question 3:
Show that for 0 < x < 𝝿:
2x/𝝿 < sin(x)
Question 3:
Show that for 0 < x < 𝝿:
2x/𝝿 < sin(x)
Show that for 0 < x < 𝝿/2
Solution:
Gweilos from Quora attemps to use calculus to solve it,
i.e. differentiate sin(x) - 2x/𝝿 = 0 w.r.t. x.
This is stupid and time-consuming.
What method I use is simply intuition:
For the first quadrant, 0 < sin(x) < 1
As 1 = 2/𝝿 ‧ 𝝿/2, it is clear that 0 < 2x/𝝿 < 1
By observing the graph of sin(x) for the first quadrant,
clearly sin(x) is concave and sin'(𝝿/2) = 0
i.e. y=sin(x) pass through y=2x/𝝿 at the 2 ends of the domain.
This sufficiently shows that sin(x) > 2x/𝝿. Q.E.D.
Solution:
Gweilos from Quora attemps to use calculus to solve it,
i.e. differentiate sin(x) - 2x/𝝿 = 0 w.r.t. x.
This is stupid and time-consuming.
What method I use is simply intuition:
For the first quadrant, 0 < sin(x) < 1
As 1 = 2/𝝿 ‧ 𝝿/2, it is clear that 0 < 2x/𝝿 < 1
By observing the graph of sin(x) for the first quadrant,
clearly sin(x) is concave and sin'(𝝿/2) = 0
i.e. y=sin(x) pass through y=2x/𝝿 at the 2 ends of the domain.
This sufficiently shows that sin(x) > 2x/𝝿. Q.E.D.
Gweilos from Quora attempt to use calculus to solve it
A even more quicker method without calculus:
We know that from first quadrant, 𝝿/2 > x > sin(x) > 0
and
(𝝿/2) > (𝝿/2) / x > x /sin(x) > x > 1 > 0
Rearranging the terms, we have
sin (x) > x/(𝝿/2) = 2x/𝝿
Simple as fuck.
A even more quicker method without calculus:
We know that from first quadrant, 𝝿/2 > x > sin(x) > 0
and
(𝝿/2) > (𝝿/2) / x > x /sin(x) > x > 1 > 0
Rearranging the terms, we have
sin (x) > x/(𝝿/2) = 2x/𝝿
Simple as fuck.
Remember when x -> 0, sin(x)/x --> 1
From the graph in the first quadrant, sin x < x < tan x
Solution:
Gweilos from Quora attemps to use calculus to solve it,
i.e. differentiate sin(x) - 2x/𝝿 = 0 w.r.t. x.
This is stupid and time-consuming.
What method I use is simply intuition:
For the first quadrant, 0 < sin(x) < 1
As 1 = 2/𝝿 ‧ 𝝿/2, it is clear that 0 < 2x/𝝿 < 1
By observing the graph of sin(x) for the first quadrant,
clearly sin(x) is concave and sin'(𝝿/2) = 0
i.e. y=sin(x) pass through y=2x/𝝿 at the 2 ends of the domain.
This sufficiently shows that sin(x) > 2x/𝝿. Q.E.D.
Remark: This method implies that within the given domain, sin(x) is bijective. A bijective function cut horizontal line and verticle line once only, so When sin'(x) = 0, the point must intersect with another given bijective function, i.e. a straight line that is neither horizontal nor vertical.
A bijective function cuts horizontal line and verticle line once only,
Quesion 4:
Rewrite the integration by substitution as a chain principle of differentiation.
Soluion:
f(x) = ∫ f'(g(x)) g'(x) dx
Soluion:
f(x) = ∫ f'(g(x)) g'(x) dx
Solution
Question 5:
Explain graphically the direction of cross product such that i x j = k, j x k = i, k x i = j and j x i = -k, k × j = -i , i x k = -j
Question 5:
Explain graphically the direction of cross product such that i x j = k, j x k = i, k x i = j and j x i = -k, k × j = -i , i x k = -j
where i is on x-axis j is on y-axis and k is on z-axis in the 3D coordinate geometry.
Solution:
To make an 1D vector 2D, we rotate anticlockwisely such that the added y axis is linearly independent with x axis. Likewise, to make an 2D vector 3D, we rotate anticlockwisely su h that the added z axis is linearly independent with y axis.
Interestingly, by rotating z-axis antiockwisely we will obtain an x-axis again instead of forming a 4D axis, so overall the cross product implies anticlockwise rotation with z-axis (the direction of angular acceleration) pointing out of page. Look at the typhoons on the Northern hemisphere: they are all rotating anticlockwisely with moments of inertia pointing out of page.
The prototype of Question 1 with the suggested solution:
Enrichment: Questions that are not included in HKALE Pure Mathematics from 1994 onwards
Topic 1: Relation
Topic 2: Combinatorics - Counting Principles
Topic 3: Number Theory - Modulus
Question 6 with the suggested solution:
Question 6 with the suggested solution:
It is indefinite integration.
Question 7: Sequences
Question 8: Improper Integral
By checking the condition(s) of the final answer, you earn 1 more method mark,
Question 9:
Given f(x) = (x^2 + a) e^x. If f(x) has no extremum but one point of inflextion, what is the range of a?
Solution:
f'(x) = (x^2 + 2x + a) e^x
f"(x) = (x^2 + 4x + 2 + a) e^x
Since f(x) has no extremum, we have f'(x) ≥ 0,
because e^x > 0 and (x^2 + a) has to be equal or greater than zero.
(Otherwise f'(x) can have more than 1 root).
Now x^2 + 2x + a ≥ 0,
i.e. ∆ = 4 - 4a ≤ 0
a ≥ 1
Since f(x) has point of inflexion, f"(x) has 2 distinct roots.
For x^2 + 4x + 2 + a = 0,
∆ = 16 - 4(a+2) > 0
i.e. a < 2
So the range of a is [1, 2).
Question 10: Now we blend both M1 and M2
Given a random variable X observe Poisson distribution with the parameter = 1, compute the expected value E(|X-E(X)|).
observes*
Solution:
Since X ~ P(1), then E(X) = 1,
P{X = k} = (1/e)(1/k!). k = 0, 1, 2, ...
E(|X-1|) = 1 P{X = 0} + 0 P{X = 1} + 1P{X = 2} + ... + k P{X = k+1} + ...
= 1/e + 0 + ∑ (k/e)(1/((k+1)!))
= 1/e + 1/e [∑ (k+1-1)/((k+1)!)]
= 1/e + 1/e [∑ (1/(k!)) - ∑ (1/(k+1)!)]
= 1/e + 1/e [(1/1 + 1/2 + .... ) - (1/2 + 1/3 + ...)]
= 1/e + 1/e = 2/e.
observes*
Solution:
Since X ~ P(1), then E(X) = 1,
P{X = k} = (1/e)(1/k!). k = 0, 1, 2, ...
E(|X-1|) = 1 P{X = 0} + 0 P{X = 1} + 1P{X = 2} + ... + k P{X = k+1} + ...
= 1/e + 0 + ∑ (k/e)(1/((k+1)!))
= 1/e + 1/e [∑ (k+1-1)/((k+1)!)]
= 1/e + 1/e [∑ (1/(k!)) - ∑ (1/(k+1)!)]
= 1/e + 1/e [(1/1 + 1/2 + .... ) - (1/2 + 1/3 + ...)]
= 1/e + 1/e = 2/e.
= 1/e + 1/e [(1/1! + 1/2! + .... ) - (1/2! + 1/3! + ...)]
= 1/e + 1/e = 2/e.
Question 11:
Compute this power series:
Σ (x)^2n / (2n)!
Question 11:
Compute this power series:
Σ (x)^2n / (2n)!
Answers: straightforward
Recall e^x, e^r and put r= -x
Then the given expression is:
(e^x + e^r)/2
Question 12:
Given (1 + x)^n, using binomial expression,
find the greatest coefficient(s) of x^n.
This can be Googled directly.
Using Pascal triangle, the answer is obvious.
Question 12:
Given (1 + x)^n, using binomial expression,
find the greatest coefficient(s) of x^n.
This can be Googled directly.
Using Pascal triangle, the answer is obvious.
binomial expansion
Solution:
The greatest coefficient is in the middle.
For n being odd, take n=5,
then C2 and C3 are greatest.
For n being even, take n=8,
then C4 is the greatest.
Question 13:
Without loss of generality, outline how to compute the greatest term in binomial expansion of (ax + b)^n where a and b are any real numbers.
Solution:
Question 14:
Explain how to use inverse matrix, and otherwise, to solve a system of simultaneous kinear equations.
Solution:
In Singaporean GCE O Level additional mathematics, the square matrix is confined to 2x2 instead of 3x3.
Solution (Continued):
In HKDSE or Singaporean A Level, we can preview the method below apart from using conventional methods:
Solution (Continued):
We can use the method above to compute any inverse matrix we like:
Question 14:
Explain how to use inverse matrix, and otherwise, to solve a system of simultaneous kinear equations.
linear* equations
Question 15: I am going to introduce mean value theorem (MVT). First, do the following reading comprehension for DSERs:
Consult Google for everything you get stuck with.
Now I show a typical question type for MVT:
Below is a harder example:
上面睇唔明?
嗱,一早話中大數學系係難過科大